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IMC2019: Day 2, Problem 6Problem 6. Let \(\displaystyle f,g: \RR\longrightarrow \RR\) be continuous functions such that \(\displaystyle g\) is differentiable. Assume that \(\displaystyle \bigl(f(0)-g^{\prime} (0)\bigr)\bigl(g^{\prime} (1)-f(1)\bigr)>0 \). Show that there exists a point \(\displaystyle c\in(0,1)\) such that \(\displaystyle f(c)=g^\prime (c)\). Proposed by Fereshteh Malek, K. N. Toosi University of Technology Hint: Apply the Mean Value Theorem (Darboux property) of derivatives. | |||||||||
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